Alternative Investment Fund Managers Free Demo Test 6/50 NISM Series XIX-C: Alternative Investment Fund Managers Cert. Mock Test 2 1 / 501.The __________ of all securities is determined on every Valuation Day and the NAV is accordingly revised to represent the ‘true worth’ of the fund portfolio, as of that day. a) Mark-to-Market b) Market-to-Market c) Fair Market Value d) Marked-to-Market Explanation:The Fair Market Value of all securities is determined on every Valuation Day to ensure the NAV reflects the accurate ‘true worth’ of the fund portfolio. This process aligns with standard valuation practices for mutual funds.2 / 502.The Investment Manager or the Sponsor of every Category III AIF shall have sufficient skin-in-the-game and a continuing interest of at least _________ of the fund corpus or Rs. 10 crore, whichever is lower. a) 10 percent b) 20 percent c) 5 percent d) 15 percent Explanation:The Investment Manager or Sponsor of a Category III AIF must maintain a continuing interest of at least 5% of the fund corpus or Rs. 10 crore, whichever is lower, ensuring alignment of their interests with the investors.3 / 503.The Surcharge is calculated on the tax liability of the assesses at these applicable rates. Further, Health and Education Cess at the rate of _______ is levied on the aggregate of tax and surcharge. a) 5% b) 3% c) 6% d) 4% Explanation:The Health and Education Cess is levied at the rate of 4% on the aggregate of tax and surcharge. This cess is used to fund health and education initiatives by the government.4 / 504.Investment Management Fees, Registrar and Transfer Agent Fees, Custodian Fees, Ongoing service charges and other costs, Distributor Commissions and Marketing Expenses are charged by ________. a) Mutual funds b) Assets under management c) Net Asset Value d) Gross Asset Value Explanation:Mutual funds charge fees such as Investment Management Fees, Registrar and Transfer Agent Fees, Custodian Fees, Distributor Commissions, and Marketing Expenses to cover the operational and management costs associated with running the fund.5 / 505. ________ is a type of Directional Strategy, wherein the investment manager takes both long and short positions in selected stocks or a broad-based market index, but maintains a net short exposure to the broad market. a) Short-bias b) Dedicated-short c) Long-bias d) Dedicated-Long Explanation:Short bias is a directional strategy where the investment manager takes both long and short positions but maintains a net short exposure to the broad market, aiming to profit from declining stock or market index values.6 / 506. ________ charged by equity-oriented Mutual Fund schemes, as per amendments made to SEBI Regulations, have encouraged mutual fund managers to launch Category III AIFs in India and make investments, with greater flexibility. a) Risk Management Framework b) Registered Foreign Portfolio Investors c) Rationalization of Total Expense Ratio d) Alternative Investment Funds Explanation:The Rationalization of the Total Expense Ratio charged by equity-oriented Mutual Fund schemes, as per amendments made to SEBI Regulations, has encouraged mutual fund managers to launch Category III AIFs in India, providing them with greater flexibility in managing investments.7 / 507.STT at the rate of __________ is levied on the delivery-based sale of units of equity-oriented mutual funds, traded on a recognized stock exchange in India. a) 0.001% b) 0.01% c) 0.002% d) 0.02% Explanation:STT (Securities Transaction Tax) at the rate of 0.001% is levied on the delivery-based sale of units of equity-oriented mutual funds traded on a recognized stock exchange in India.8 / 508. The ________ includes Product Analysis on the basis of the investment strategy of the fund/scheme, inherited costs, risks and return in the fund, product suitability of the fund based on risk profiling, etc. a) Distributors’ Sales Pitch b) Investor's Sales Pitch c) Agents’ Sales Pitch d) None of these Explanation:The distributor’s sales pitch includes product analysis based on the fund’s investment strategy, inherited costs, risks, returns, and product suitability according to the investor’s risk profile. It aims to help investors understand the investment before making a decision.9 / 509. The enhanced Surcharge Rate of 25%, for foreign portfolio investors with total income above _________. a) Rs.5 crore b) Rs.3 crore c) Rs.4 crore d) Rs.2 crore Explanation:The enhanced surcharge rate of 25% applies to foreign portfolio investors whose total income exceeds Rs. 2 crore. This is applicable to their tax liability as per the relevant tax regulations.10 / 5010.For ________, Net Worth = (Book Value of all Assets, other than intangible assets) – (Book Value of total liabilities). a) Trust b) body corporate c) Accredited Investors d) Funds set up by the Central Government Explanation:For a Trust, the Net Worth is calculated as the Book Value of all Assets, other than intangible assets, minus the Book Value of total liabilities. This helps in determining the financial strength of the trust.11 / 5011.The following types of income will most likely be taxed as ‘Income from Other Sources’ for a Category III AIF, EXCEPT ________. a) Dividend Income b) Interest Income c) Income from transactions in exchange-traded derivatives d) Deemed Income on Investment in shares below its Fair Market Value, under Section 56(2)(x) of the Income Tax Act Explanation:Income from transactions in exchange-traded derivatives is typically not taxed as ‘Income from Other Sources’ for a Category III AIF. Instead, such income may be classified under capital gains or business income, depending on the nature of the transactions.12 / 5012. As per SEBI Regulations, all Category III AIFs shall disclose the Investment Strategy, Investment Objective and the Investment Methodology to the potential investors, in their ____________. a) Private Placement Memorandum b) Private Placement Manager c) Primary placement Memorandum d) Primary Placement Manager Explanation:As per SEBI Regulations, Category III AIFs are required to disclose their investment strategy, objective, and methodology in the Private Placement Memorandum (PPM) to provide potential investors with detailed information about the fund’s approach and objectives.13 / 5013. In category III AIF, Assist clients in completing KYC documentation and verification procedures. State whether true or false. a) TRUE b) FALSE Explanation:In Category III AIFs, the fund is responsible for assisting clients with the completion of KYC (Know Your Customer) documentation and verification procedures to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements.14 / 5014.The _______ is important for the Investment Manager, as it serves as a threshold return over which the Investment Manager will be eligible to earn Incentive Fees. a) Preferred Return b) Incentives Fees c) Hurdle Rate d) Set-up costs Explanation:The hurdle rate is the minimum return that an investment must achieve before the Investment Manager becomes eligible to earn incentive fees. It acts as a performance threshold to ensure that the fund generates sufficient returns before any additional fees are paid to the manager.15 / 5015. Securities Transaction Tax would be paid by Fund TI at the time of purchase of listed equity shares, at the rate of 0.1% on the transaction value of such purchase. State whether true or false a) TRUE b) FALSE Explanation:Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is applicable at the rate of 0.1% on the transaction value of the purchase of listed equity shares. This tax is paid at the time of purchase by the fund or investor involved in the transaction.16 / 5016. The ______ includes a “principal purpose test”, wherein tax benefits under a Double Tax Avoidance Agreement can be denied if one of the principal purposes of an arrangement or a transaction was to, directly or indirectly, obtain a tax benefit. a) MIL b) DRAC c) DAC d) MAIL Explanation:The MIL (Multilateral Instrument) includes the “principal purpose test” (PPT), which allows tax benefits under a Double Tax Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) to be denied if one of the principal purposes of a transaction or arrangement was to obtain a tax benefit.17 / 5017. Complex fund structuring is required which makes it difficult for investors to comprehend in Alternative Investments. State whether True or False. a) TRUE b) FALSE 18 / 5018.The Valuation Day is post-determined by a Category III AIF, and communicated to the investors in its offer documents, as the day by reference to which the NAV of the Category III AIF is determined. State whether True or False. a) TRUE b) FALSE Explanation:The Valuation Day is not post-determined by a Category III AIF. Instead, it is required to be specified in the fund’s offer documents as the day on which the Net Asset Value (NAV) will be determined, and this should be a regular and predictable day for valuation. The AIF cannot arbitrarily choose the Valuation Day after the fact.19 / 5019. _________ represents a commitment by the Category III AIF to proceed with the fund and is also a positive signal for other investors who may be monitoring the fundraising process with the intent of investing in the future. a) AIF Fees b) First close c) Final close d) Soft cap Explanation:The first close represents a commitment by the Category III AIF to proceed with the fund and signals to other potential investors that the fund is operational. It often serves as a positive indicator for others considering future investments.20 / 5020. Series NAV is rounded up to four fractional places. a) TRUE b) FALSE Explanation:The Series NAV is generally rounded to two decimal places, not four, as per standard industry practice for mutual funds and alternative investment funds. Rounding to four fractional places is not typically required.21 / 5021. _____ is the basis of allocating units or distributions to the investors, on liquidation or redemption. a) Net Asset Value b) Beneficial Interest c) Debt security d) Valuation Day Explanation:Beneficial Interest represents the proportionate ownership of an investor in an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF). It forms the basis for allocating units or distributions during liquidation or redemption.22 / 5022.The _________ is the key decision-maker for a Category III AIF, making investment decisions on behalf of the fund’s investors. a) Investors b) Investment Manager c) Distributors d) Investee Explanation:The Investment Manager is responsible for making key investment decisions for a Category III Alternative Investment Fund (AIF), ensuring that the fund’s objectives are achieved on behalf of the investors.23 / 5023. The Investment Manager should not have internal policies within the Fund, to train employees and stakeholders in identifying the conflict, taking the recommended measure as per policy, and disclosing the same to the Manager. State whether true or false. a) TRUE b) FALSE Explanation:The Investment Manager must have internal policies to train employees and stakeholders on identifying and managing conflicts of interest. This includes taking recommended measures as per the policy and ensuring proper disclosure to the Manager.24 / 5024. The person who transfers the property is called a ________. a) Trustor b) Settlor c) Beneficiary d) Trustee Explanation:A Settlor is a person who transfers property to create a trust. The Settlor entrusts the property to the Trustee for the benefit of the Beneficiary.25 / 5025.Applicable Tax Rates for a Category III AIF, Where the ________ is formed as a Company or a Limited Liability Partnership, total income of such Investment Fund shall be charged to tax, as per the rates applicable to Company. a) Capital Asset b) Oriented Fund c) Investment Fund d) Capital equity Asset Explanation:For a Category III AIF formed as a Company or Limited Liability Partnership (LLP), the Investment Fund is taxed at rates applicable to companies, ensuring compliance with relevant tax laws.26 / 5026. Which strategy focuses on delivering absolute returns by identifying over-priced and under-priced stocks relative to the investment manager’s fair valuation? a) Market-Neutral Strategy b) Global-Macro Strategy c) Long-Short Equity d) Long-only Equity Explanation:The Long-Short Equity strategy aims to generate absolute returns by taking long positions in undervalued stocks and short positions in overvalued stocks, based on the investment manager’s fair valuation. This strategy is commonly used by hedge funds and Category III Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) to benefit from both rising and falling markets. Unlike a long-only equity strategy, which profits only from rising stock prices, the long-short approach provides flexibility and can generate returns regardless of overall market direction. This makes it an effective method for managing risk and capitalizing on market inefficiencies.27 / 5027.The Category III AIF shall intimate to SEBI within _________ of receiving a request for redemption from the client, which results in the breach a) 7 days b) 3 days c) 2 days d) 5 days Explanation:The Category III AIF must inform SEBI within 2 days of receiving a request for redemption from the client that leads to a breach of the applicable limits or conditions.28 / 5028. The __________ are incurred towards any offering costs, registration and compliance costs, fees and commissions to be paid to intermediaries, increased by appropriate Goods and Service Tax rates and other applicable statutory taxes charged thereon. a) Operating Expenses b) Set-up costs c) Transaction Expenses d) Fixed plus variable fee Explanation:The Set-up costs include expenses related to offering, registration, compliance, intermediary fees, and applicable taxes like Goods and Service Tax (GST), which are incurred during the establishment of an AIF.29 / 5029. __________ means an AIF which invests primarily in securities or units of social ventures and which satisfies social performance norms laid down by the fund and whose investors may agree to receive restricted or muted returns. a) Hedge Fund b) Social Venture Fund c) Small and Medium Enterprise Fund d) Infrastructure Fund Explanation:A Social Venture Fund is an AIF that primarily invests in securities or units of social ventures, aiming to meet social performance norms, with investors agreeing to receive limited or muted returns in exchange for social impact.30 / 5030. __________ section also provides information about the lock-in period and the redemption fees, or exit load to be paid by investors in case of early redemptions. a) Investment Objective and Strategy b) Redemption c) Investment Manager d) Term of the Fund/Scheme Explanation:The Redemption section provides details about the lock-in period, redemption fees, or exit load that investors must pay in case of early redemptions, helping manage liquidity and investment duration.31 / 5031. Which type of distribution has data values that are either clustered around the mean or substantially deviating away from the mean? a) Leptokurtic Distributions b) Platykurtic Distributions c) Standard Normal Distribution d) Normal Distribution Explanation:A Leptokurtic Distribution is characterized by: A higher peak at the mean, indicating that most values are concentrated near the mean. Fat tails, meaning a greater number of extreme values that deviate substantially from the mean. Higher kurtosis (>3), compared to a normal distribution (kurtosis = 3), indicating more outliers.Other options:Platykurtic Distribution – Has a flatter peak and thin tails, indicating fewer extreme values.Standard Normal Distribution – A special case of the Normal Distribution with mean = 0 and standard deviation = 1.Normal Distribution – A bell-shaped curve with symmetrical tails and moderate kurtosis (kurtosis = 3).32 / 5032. Tax rates applicable to the Category III AIF are further determined by the source and nature of income, such as _______. a) Trust teed b) Gains/Loss c) Capital Gains d) Trust Gains Explanation:The tax rates for Category III AIF are determined by the source and nature of income, such as capital gains. These gains are subject to specific tax treatments based on their classification as short-term or long-term capital gains.33 / 5033. __________ risk measure is used to ascertain the extent to which a distribution is not symmetrical across the mean. a) Standard Deviation b) Mean c) Skewness d) Kurtosis Explanation:Skewness measures the asymmetry of a distribution around its mean. A positive skew indicates a longer right tail, while a negative skew indicates a longer left tail, helping assess the distribution’s shape.34 / 5034.___________ which states the period during which investors can redeem their money back from the Fund. a) Investment Objective and Strategy b) Redemption c) Investment Manager d) None of these Explanation:Redemption specifies the period during which investors can withdraw their investments from the fund. It is a key term outlined in the fund’s offering documents, ensuring clarity on liquidity terms.35 / 5035. On the date of entering into a _______ the Futures Price at which a Category III AIF enters into a contract and the number of contracts entered into is taken for the purpose of computing Total Exposure. a) options contract b) futures contract c) derivative contract d) Extreme Loss contracts Explanation:When entering into a futures contract, the futures price and the number of contracts are used to compute the Total Exposure for a Category III AIF. This helps in assessing the fund’s leverage and compliance with regulatory limits.36 / 5036. Fund Tenure, Target Corpus, Investor Reporting mechanism, and Dates of First Close and Final Close are _______ of the Category III AIF/Fund scheme. a) Proposed Investment b) Key Terms c) Key Risk Factors d) All the above Explanation:Fund Tenure, Target Corpus, Investor Reporting mechanism, and the dates of the First Close and Final Close are considered the Key Terms of a Category III AIF/Fund scheme, as they define its structure and operational framework.37 / 5037. ___________ of investment risks revolutionized the basket of assets available for investment. a) Traditional Investment b) Portfolio Assessment c) Fund management d) Industrial Revolution Explanation:Portfolio assessment, which involves evaluating and diversifying investment risks, revolutionized the range of assets available for investment. This approach optimizes returns while managing risk effectively.38 / 5038. Determination of NAV should be done in _________. a) Dolar b) Indian Rupee c) A & B d) None of the above Explanation:The Net Asset Value (NAV) of a fund is calculated in the currency of its domicile or as per investor preference.In India, mutual funds and AIFs (Alternative Investment Funds) determine NAV in Indian Rupees (INR).However, for international funds or funds with foreign investments, NAV may also be determined in US Dollars (USD) or other foreign currencies.Hence, NAV can be computed in both INR and USD, making Option 3 (A & B) the correct answer.39 / 5039.Examples of Category I AIFs is/are _________. a) Social Venture Fund b) Private Equity Funds c) A & B d) Hedge Fund Explanation:Social Venture Funds are examples of Category I AIFs, which focus on investments with a positive social impact. These funds are aimed at promoting economic and social development.40 / 5040.Investment Managers can charge an Incentive Fee which is a share in _________ earned by the Fund, in excess of the Hurdle Rate set in the PPM. a) Loss b) Liquidity c) Average units d) Additional return Explanation:Investment Managers can charge an Incentive Fee, which is a share of the additional return earned by the fund, beyond the Hurdle Rate specified in the Private Placement Memorandum (PPM). This fee aligns the manager’s interests with those of the investors.41 / 5041. Derivative contracts traded in __________ markets, which do not have a fixed price on a recognized stock exchange, shall be valued at fair value to compute the mark-to-market margin and resulting gains or losses. a) Over the Counter b) Relevant Valuation day c) Fair Market Value d) Series Liabilities Explanation:Derivative contracts traded in over-the-counter (OTC) markets, which do not have a fixed price on a recognized stock exchange, are valued at fair value to compute the mark-to-market margin and the resulting gains or losses. This ensures that the positions reflect their current market value.42 / 5042. __________ fund structure can a feeder fund invest directly in investee companies in India, alongside an Onshore Category III AIF. a) Co-investment b) Offshore c) Master-feeder d) Parallel Explanation:In a Parallel fund structure, a feeder fund can invest directly in investee companies in India, alongside an onshore Category III AIF. This structure allows parallel investments in the same assets by both domestic and offshore investors while maintaining separate fund vehicles, ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements for foreign investments.43 / 5043. Indian mutual funds could invest only up to _________ of its net assets in foreign securities. a) 10 percent b) 20 percent c) 30 percent d) 15 percent Explanation:As per the SEBI circular dated November 7, 2002, Indian mutual funds were permitted to invest up to 10% of their net assets in foreign securities. However, these limits have evolved over time. In recent years, SEBI has imposed an industry-wide cap of $7 billion for overseas investments by mutual funds, with each fund house allowed to invest up to $1 billion. Therefore, the correct answer is 10 percent.44 / 5044. Distressed financing provides capital for companies with heavy debt burdens to turn around or to help them be acquired by new owners through auctions conducted under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016. Such processes are known as ________. a) Infrastructure Fund b) Debt Fund c) Insolvency resolution d) Solvency resolution Explanation:Insolvency resolution refers to restructuring or acquiring distressed companies through mechanisms outlined in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. It helps manage heavy debt burdens and facilitates turnaround or acquisition.45 / 5045. _________ should not follow unfair practices such as extending Pass-backs to investors, who subscribe to units of a Category III AIF being marketed by such distributor. a) Distributors b) Investors c) Investment manager d) Investees Explanation:Distributors must avoid unfair practices like offering pass-backs to investors who subscribe to units of a Category III AIF. Such practices violate ethical standards and regulatory guidelines.46 / 5046. If the ________ to be paid to the Target Company is over-valued, there is an inherent risk that the equity share price of the Acquiring Company will fall. a) Tax b) Investment c) Premium d) Share Explanation:If the Premium paid to the Target Company is overvalued, it can negatively impact the financial health of the Acquiring Company, leading to a potential decline in its equity share price.47 / 5047. Investment Manager is successful in raising commitments over the minimum corpus or has completed a stipulated period of fund raise, it may declare a ________. a) First close b) Final close c) Lock-in period d) Soft cap Explanation:A First Close occurs when the Investment Manager successfully raises commitments above the minimum corpus or completes a set fundraising period, allowing the fund to begin operations or make initial investments.48 / 5048. _____________ which states the prior experience of the Fund Manager(s) responsible to take investment decisions for the Fund. a) Investment Objective and Strategy b) Redemption c) Investment Manager d) Term of the Fund/Scheme Explanation:The Investment Manager section of a fund document states the prior experience, qualifications, and track record of the fund manager(s) responsible for making investment decisions.It provides information on the manager’s expertise, past performance, investment philosophy, and ability to handle the fund effectively.Why Not Other Options?Investment Objective and Strategy – Defines the fund’s goals and investment approach, not the experience of the fund manager.Redemption – Describes the process for investors to withdraw their investments, unrelated to the fund manager’s experience.Term of the Fund/Scheme – Specifies the duration of the fund, including lock-in periods and maturity, but does not detail the fund manager’s background.49 / 5049. ________ modeling helps to determine the potential for loss and the probability of occurrence of such loss over a defined timeframe. a) Performance Benchmarking b) Expected Return c) Value at Risk d) Maximum Drawdown Explanation:Value at Risk (VaR) is a risk management tool that helps determine the potential for loss in an investment portfolio or asset, along with the probability of such a loss occurring over a defined period. It is used to quantify the risk level associated with a particular investment.50 / 5050. _________ have a Kurtosis below 3, or Excess Kurtosis less than zero. a) Platykurtic Distributions b) Leptokurtic Distributions c) Normal Distribution d) None of these Explanation:Platykurtic distributions have a Kurtosis below 3, or Excess Kurtosis less than zero. These distributions tend to have lighter tails and a flatter peak compared to the normal distribution. This is in contrast to Leptokurtic distributions, which have a higher Kurtosis, indicating heavier tails and a sharper peak.Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit