Currency Derivatives Free Demo Test 8 /20 Currency Derivatives Free Demo Test 8 1 / 20 1. Tick size depends on – a) The Interest rates b) The Delta of the security c) Its fixed by the exchange d) Volume in that security Explanation: Tick Size: It is the minimum move allowed in the price quotations. Exchanges decide the tick sizes on traded contracts as part of contract specification. For eg. -Tick size for Nifty futures is 5 paisa. 2 / 20 2. If the liquid assets held by clearing member Mr. Ram exceed those of clearing member Mr. Shyam, which of the following statements is/are accurate? a) Mr Ram has a higher exposure level than Mr. Shyam b) Both Mr. Ram and Mr. Shyam have the same level of exposure c) Mr Shyam has a higher exposure level than Mr. Ram d) There is no need to maintain liquid assets Explanation: As per the rules of SEBI and Stock Exchanges,the notional value of gross open positions at any point in time in the case of all Futures and Options shall not exceed a particular percentage of the liquid networth of a member. So a member (Mr Ram) who keeps higher liquid assets as security and margin with the stock exchanges will get higher exposure limits. 3 / 20 3. How much Initial Margin does the broker need to collect from both traders, Mr. Raj and Mr. Rahul, who want to sell 10 contracts of the June series at Rs.5200 and buy 5 contracts of the July series at Rs.5250, respectively, given that the lot size for both contracts is 50 and the fixed Initial Margin is 10%? a) Rs 1,31,250 b) Rs 3,91,250 c) Rs 1,28,750 d) Rs 2,60,000 Explanation: Payment of Initial Margin by a broker cannot be netted against two or more clients. So he will have to pay the margin for the open position of each of his clients. So margin payable for Mr. Raj is : 10 x 5200 x 50 at 10% = Rs 2,60,000 Margin payable for Mr. Rahul is : 5 x 5250 x 50 at 10% = Rs 1,31,250 Total = Rs 3,91,250. 4 / 20 4. What is the term for a trading strategy in which a trader simultaneously purchases a call and a put option with the same strike price and expiration date? a) Short Straddle b) Calendar Spread c) Butterfly d) Long Straddle Explanation: To do a long straddle strategy one has to buy a call and a put option of the same strike price and expiry. Together, they produce a position which will lead to profits if the market / stock is very volatile and it makes a big move – either up or down. For eg- A person buys a Rs 200 call at Rs 30 and a Rs 200 put at Rs 20 of a stock. If the stock rises significantly the call will rise greatly but his put will fall by maximum Rs 20. So he makes a good profit. If the stock falls significantly, he loses his call money buy gains greatly in the put option as it rises. Thus the Long Straddle is used when a trader expects a big move in the stock – in any direction is ok. 5 / 20 5. When is the scheduled introduction date for the April index future contract on NSE among the following options? a) On the 1st trading day after last Thursday in March b) On the 1st trading day after last Thursday in January c) On the 1st trading day after last Friday in March d) On the 1st trading day after last Friday in March Explanation: There are always 3 contracts running. So for eg. we will have Jan-Feb-Mar contracts trading in January. When January contracts expire on last Thursday of January, on Friday the April contracts will be introduced and so we will have Feb-Mar-April contracts. 6 / 20 6. Closing a long position in a PUT option can be achieved by initiating a short position in a CALL option. a) True b) False Explanation: A long position in any option can be closed by selling that option and not in any other way. So a long position in a PUT option can be closed by selling that PUT option. 7 / 20 7. How can a long position in a CALL option be effectively terminated or offset? a) True b) False Explanation: A long position in any option can be closed by selling that option and not in any other way. So a long position in a CALL option can be closed by selling that CALL option. 8 / 20 8. What is the term for the strategy of purchasing a put option on a stock that you already own? a) Writing a covered call b) Calender spread c) Straddle d) Protective put Explanation: Protective Put is a a risk-management strategy that investors can use to guard against the loss of unrealized gains. The put option acts like an insurance policy – it costs money, which reduces the investor’s potential gains from owning the security, but it also reduces his risk of losing money if the security declines in value. 9 / 20 9. The intrinsic value, calculated as the variance between the Market Price and Strike Price of the option, is always non-negative. a) True b) False Explanation: For an option, intrinsic value refers to the amount by which option is in the money i.e. the amount an option buyer will realize, before adjusting for premium paid, if he exercises the option instantly. For call option which is in-the-money, intrinsic value is the excess of market price over the exercise price. For put option which is in-the-money, intrinsic value is the excess of exercise price over the market price. 10 / 20 10. A stock exchange employs online surveillance capabilities to monitor the __________. a) Volumes b) Prices c) Positions d) All of the above Explanation: All modern stock exchanges have highly developed online surveillance systems to monitor the volumes / position and prices of all listed products and also check any unusual activity etc. in them. 11 / 20 11. Given a one-year interest rate of 1% in the US and 4% in Great Britain, along with the current GBPUSD spot rate at 1.74, what is the anticipated one-year futures rate for GBPUSD? a) Higher than 1.74 b) 1.74 c) Lower than 1.74 Explanation: The formula for Interest Rate Parity is : Future Rate = Spot Rate X (1 + Interest Rate of Quoted Currency) / ( 1 + Interest Rate of Base Currency) = 1.74 X ( 1 + 0.01 ) / ( 1 + 0.04 ) = 1.74 X ( 1.01 / 1.04) = 1.74 x 0.9711 = 1.689 Thus the future rate will be at a discount as Quoted Currency interest rates are less than base currency interest rates. 12 / 20 12. What is the designated tick size for currency futures contracts in India? a) 2.5 paise b) 0.025 paise c) 25 paise d) 0.25 paise Explanation: For currency futures contract in India, the tick size is 0.25 paise or 0.0025 Rupee For eg – If USDINR is 56.7500, then a upward movement of one tick will result in a price of 56.7525. 13 / 20 13. While entering a limit order to SELL GBPINR one-month future at 70.60, with the current price fluctuating between 70.40 to 70.80, at what price is the order expected to be executed? a) Any price below 70.60 b) Any price between 70.40 to 70.80 c) Any price above 70.60 d) At or above 70.60 Explanation: When a person enters a limit SELL order, his order cannot get executed below the limit price. However if the price rises while entering the order, he can sell it at a higher price. So in the above case, he can sell GBPINR at the limit price of 70.60 or higher if the price rises while entering the order. 14 / 20 14. In a system of 10 currencies without any designated vehicle currencies, there could potentially be _____ currency pairs or exchange rates. a) 45 b) 100 c) 70 d) 20 Explanation: Use of a vehicle currency ( like USD ) greatly reduces the number of exchange rates that must be dealt with in a multilateral system. In a system of 10 currencies, if one currency is selected as the vehicle currency and used for all transactions, there would be a total of nine currency pairs to be dealt with (i.e. one exchange rate for the vehicle currency against each of the others), If no vehicle currency were used, there would be 45 exchange rates to be dealt with as per below calculations : The formula is : n ( n – 1) / 2 = 10 ( 10 -1 ) / 2 = 10 ( 9 ) / 2 = 10 x 4.5 = 45 15 / 20 15. What describes a potential arbitrage trade and the achievable arbitrage profit per USD if a trader exploits the price discrepancy between the one-month USDINR OTC market (quoted at 47.75/48.00) and the corresponding futures market (quoted at 48.50/48.70), and holds the arbitrage trade until maturity? a) Buy USDINR in OTC and sell in futures, 60 paise b) Sell USDINR in OTC and buy in futures, 85 paise c) Buy USDINR in OTC and sell in futures, 50 paise d) Buy USDINR in OTC and sell in futures, 75 paise Explanation: Arbitrageurs make profits by simultaneously entering opposite side transactions in two or more markets ie. buy in one market at a lower price and sell in another at a higher price. Here, in the OTC Market the Bid Ask price is 47.75 / 48.00. So an arbitrageur will buy at 48.00. In Futures Market the Bid Ask price is 48.50 / 48.70. So the arbitrageur will sell at 48.50. Thus he will make an arbitrage profit of Rs 0.50 ( 48.50 – 48.00 ) 16 / 20 16. At a bank quoting a USDINR rate of 54.20/54.30, what is the selling price for one unit of USD when the exporter wishes to sell USD received as export remittance? a) 54.50 b) 54.30 c) 54.20 d) 54.25 Explanation: 54.20 and 54.30 are the BID and ASK price. This means there are buyers at 54.20 and sellers at 54.30. So if the exporter wants to sell, he has to sell them to the buyer at 54.20 17 / 20 17. Which option below provides the most accurate description of total open interest, specifically used for monitoring open positions throughout the day? a) Total open interest at 12.00 b) Maximum open interest in the previous day c) Minimum open interest in the previous day d) Total open interest at end of previous day Explanation: Positions during the day are monitored based on the total open interest at the end of the previous day’s trade. 18 / 20 18. By executing a trade where he buys one lot of USD/INR and sells one lot of JPY/INR, what market view has Mr. Sunny expressed? a) INR weakening against JPY b) JPY weakening against USD c) INR strengthening against USD d) JPY strengthening against USD Explanation: Buying USDINR – USD strengthening against INR Selling JPYINR – JPY weakening against INR Conclusion from above two statements – USD strengthening against JPY or JPY weakening against USD. 19 / 20 19. Which option below provides the most accurate description of the timing for the collection of Mark-to-Market margins? a) At the end of day at 6 pm b) T+2 c) At 10.30 am the next day d) Before the beginning of next days transactions Explanation: The mark-to-market gains and losses are settled in cash before the start of trading on T+1 day. 20 / 20 20. True or False: Volatility is the measure of uncertainty in prices of the underlying asset. a) False b) True Explanation: Volatility measures the magnitude of the change of prices (up or down) of the underlying asset. Higher the volatility, higher is the option premium and vice versa. Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit