Portfolio Management Services (PMS) Distributors Free Demo Test 1 /10 Portfolio Management Services (PMS) DistributorsFree Demo Test 1 1 / 10 1. Calculate the coupon yield of bond which pays a coupon of Rs 14. The face value is Rs. 100 and the market price is Rs. 108. a) 14% b) 94% c) 44% d) 46% Explanation:The Coupon yield is the coupon payment as a percentage of the face value. Coupon yield = Coupon Payment / Face Value 14/100 = 0.14 x 100 = 14% (Coupon yield is different from Current yield. Current yield = (Annual coupon rate / Current market price of the bond) x 100% 2 / 10 2. The SEBI Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations prohibit a person to, directly or indirectly _________ securities in a fraudulent manner. a) Buy b) Sell c) Deal d) All of the above Explanation:The SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Relating to Securities Market) Regulations prohibit a person to, directly or indirectly buy, sell or deal in securities in a fraudulent manner. 3 / 10 3. Which of the following schemes have the features like 1) Continuous sale and purchase of units at NAV or NAV related prices, 2) Investor can enter and exit the scheme any time during the life of a fund, 3) The scheme does not have specific time frame. a) Interval scheme b) Open ended scheme c) Close ended scheme d) All of the above Explanation:Open-ended funds allow the investors to enter or exit at any time, after the NFO. The scheme does not have a maturity. Investors can buy additional units in the scheme any time after the scheme opens for on-going transactions.Prospective investors can also buy units. At any time, the existing investors can redeem their investments, that is, they can sell the units back to the scheme to get their money back. Close-ended funds have a fixed maturity. Interval funds combine features of both open-ended and close-ended schemes. They are largely close-ended but become open-ended at pre-specified intervals 4 / 10 4. The counterparty risk in a futures contract is mitigated primarily through __________. a) The functions of the clearing corporation b) Collateralisation by one of the parties to the contract c) Settlement on gross basis between two parties d) The limits on positions and trading volumes Explanation:The trades executed on the exchange are settled through a clearing corporation, which acts as a counterparty and guarantees the settlement of the trades to both buyers and sellers. The clearing corporation provides full novation of contracts between buyers and sellers, which means it acts as buyer to every seller and seller to every buyer. As a result, the operational risk of the transaction is substantially reduced to a trading investor. 5 / 10 5. _________ is the central, national agency responsible for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions to enforcement agencies. a) SEBI b) FIU-IND c) CBI d) RBI Explanation:Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND) is the central, national agency responsible for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions to enforcement agencies and foreign FIUs.The portfolio manager is required to report any suspicious transaction within 7 working days to FIU. 6 / 10 6. The feature that allows the issuing firms to retire the bonds before the maturity by paying a prescribed price is called _______. a) Convertibility b) Redemption c) Callability (call option) d) Putability (put option) Explanation:A callable bond gives the issuer right to redeem all or part of the outstanding bonds before the specified maturity date. Callable bonds are advantageous to the issuer of the security. In other words, callable bonds present investors with a higher level of reinvestment risk than noncallable bonds. The issuer will call the bond before its maturity only when the interest rates for similar bonds fall in market. The investor will receive the face value of the bond before the maturity. 7 / 10 7. An _________ is a broad outlay of the type of securities and permissible instruments to be invested in by the portfolio manager for the customer, taking into account factors specific to clients and securities. a) Investment statement b) Investment approach c) Investment profile d) Investment objectives Explanation:The agreement between the portfolio manager and the client includes the investment approach. An investment approach is a broad outlay of the type of securities and permissible instruments to be invested in by the portfolio manager for the customer, taking into account factors specific to clients and securities. 8 / 10 8. ________ industries rise and fall and very closely follow the general economic activity in comparison to other industries. a) Financial b) Cyclical c) Consumer staples d) Defensive Explanation:A cyclical industry is a type of industry that is sensitive to the business cycle, such that revenues generally are higher in periods of economic prosperity and expansion and are lower in periods of economic downturn and contraction.Cyclical industries are attractive investments during the early stages of an economic recovery. During the phase of recovery, consumer durable sectors such as producers of cars, personal computers, refrigerators, tractors etc. become attractive investments 9 / 10 9. The agreement between the portfolio manager and the client should include which of the following? a) investment approach, areas of investment and restrictions, if any, imposed by the client with regard to the investment in a particular company or industry b) period of the contract and provision of early termination, if any c) the investment objectives and the services to be provided d) All of the above Explanation:All of the above are included in the agreement. 10 / 10 10. The SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations came in the year _______ . a) 1994 b) 1996 c) 1964 d) 2000 Explanation:The SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations came in the year 1996. Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit