Portfolio Management Services (PMS) Distributors Free Demo Test 2/10 Portfolio Management Services (PMS) DistributorsFree Demo Test 2 1 / 101. Which of the following schemes have features like 1) Continuous sale and purchase of units at NAV or NAV-related prices, 2) Investor can enter and exit the scheme at any time during the life of a fund, and 3) The scheme does not have a specific time frame. a) Interval scheme b) Open ended scheme c) Close ended scheme d) All of the above Explanation:Open-ended funds allow the investors to enter or exit at any time, after the NFO. The scheme does not have a maturity. Investors can buy additional units in the scheme any time after the scheme opens for ongoing transactions.Prospective investors can also buy units. At any time, the existing investors can redeem their investments, that is, they can sell the units back to the scheme to get their money back. Close-ended funds have a fixed maturity. Interval funds combine features of both open-ended and close-ended schemes. They are largely close-ended but become open-ended at pre-specified intervals.2 / 102. The counterparty risk in a futures contract is mitigated primarily through __________. a) The functions of the clearing corporation b) Collateralization by one of the parties to the contract c) Settlement on gross basis between two parties d) The limits on positions and trading volumes Explanation:The trades executed on the exchange are settled through a clearing corporation, which acts as a counterparty and guarantees the settlement of the trades to both buyers and sellers. The clearing corporation provides full novation of contracts between buyers and sellers, which means it acts as buyer to every seller and seller to every buyer. As a result, the operational risk of the transaction is substantially reduced to a trading investor.3 / 103. The feature that allows the issuing firms to retire the bonds before maturity by paying a prescribed price is called _______. a) Convertibility b) Redemption c) Callability (call option) d) Putability (put option) Explanation:A callable bond gives the issuer the right to redeem all or part of the outstanding bonds before the specified maturity date. Callable bonds are advantageous to the issuer of the security. In other words, callable bonds present investors with a higher level of reinvestment risk than noncallable bonds. The issuer will call the bond before its maturity only when the interest rates for similar bonds fall in the market. The investor will receive the face value of the bond before the maturity.4 / 104. An _________ is a broad outlay of the type of securities and permissible instruments to be invested in by the portfolio manager for the customer, taking into account factors specific to clients and securities. a) Investment statement b) Investment approach c) Investment profile d) Investment objectives Explanation:The agreement between the portfolio manager and the client includes the investment approach. An investment approach is a broad outlay of the type of securities and permissible instruments to be invested in by the portfolio manager for the customer, taking into account factors specific to clients and securities.5 / 105. ________ industries rise and fall and very closely follow the general economic activity in comparison to other industries. a) Financial b) Cyclical c) Consumer staples d) Defensive Explanation:A cyclical industry is a type of industry that is sensitive to the business cycle, such that revenues generally are higher in periods of economic prosperity and expansion and are lower in periods of economic downturn and contraction.Cyclical industries are attractive investments during the early stages of an economic recovery. During the phase of recovery, consumer durable sectors such as producers of cars, personal computers, refrigerators, tractors, etc. become attractive investments.6 / 106. The agreement between the portfolio manager and the client should include which of the following? a) investment approach, areas of investment, and restrictions, if any, imposed by the client about the investment in a particular company or industry b) period of the contract and provision of early termination, if any c) the investment objectives and the services to be provided d) All of the above Explanation:All of the above are included in the agreement.7 / 107. The SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations came in the year _______ . a) 1994 b) 1996 c) 1964 d) 2000 Explanation:The SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations came in the year 1996.8 / 108. ________ portfolio manager manages the funds under the directions of the client. a) Discretionary b) Non-discretionary c) Advisory d) All of the above Explanation:Non-discretionary portfolio manager manages the funds in accordance with the directions of the client. The portfolio manager does not exercise his/her discretion for the buy or sell decisions. (Discretionary portfolio managers individually and independently manage the funds of each investor as per the contract.)9 / 109. While making an application for a portfolio manager, financial information has to be submitted for which of the three years? a) Current and the next two years b) Preceding two years and the current year c) Preceding 3 years d) Succeeding three years Explanation:Information has to be submitted for the Capital Structure: Paid-up capital & Free Reserves for the Year before the preceding year of the current year, the Preceding year, Current Year.10 / 1010. A reputed portfolio manager has deployed funds of a client with a corporate. The corporation has promised that convertible bonds will be issued against these funds. Is this transaction in order? a) This is NOT in order as no physical delivery of the security has been made and this is not permitted. b) This is NOT in order as this amounts to the lending of the client's funds and this is not permitted. c) This is in order as this style of investment is routine and approved. d) This is in order as eventually bonds will be issued to the PMS. Explanation:As per SEBI’s Do’s and Don’ts for the portfolio managers – The portfolio manager shall not deploy the clients’ funds in bill discounting, financing, or for lending or placement with corporate or non-corporate bodies.Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit