Portfolio Management Services (PMS) Distributors Free Demo Test 4/10 Portfolio Management Services (PMS) DistributorsFree Demo Test 4 1 / 101. Mr. Suresh wants to invest in long term corporate bonds as they are giving higher returns. However his portfolio manager is of a strong belief that inflation and interest rates will be on a rise for the next 2-3 years. Which of these is/are valid arguments to convince Mr. Suresh not to invest in long term corporate bonds? a) Due to rising inflation, the profitability of corporates may be negatively affected leading to corporate default b) The bond prices and market interest rates are inversely related c) Both of the above d) None of the above Explanation:Bond prices and the interest rates have an inverse relationship.Bond prices are sensitive to changes in interest rates. As market rates of interest increase, the market values of the bond portfolios decrease and vice versa.Also, inflation can affect profitability. Inflation impacts different industries differently. Some industries can pass on the increase in the costs of products to their consumers by increasing prices. Their revenue and profits may remain unaffected by inflation. However, some industries are not able to charge the increased costs of production to their consumers. Their profitability suffers due to inflation.2 / 102. Government securities carry practically no risk of ________ and, hence are called risk-free or gilt-edged instruments. a) Tradability b) liquidity c) default d) negotiability Explanation:Government securities carry practically no risk of default and are, therefore, called risk-free or gilt-edged instruments. This means the government is highly unlikely to fail in making interest payments or returning the principal.3 / 103.The present value is calculated by discounting each cash flow at a rate known as _______. a) Yield to maturity b) Coupon yield c) Risk free rate of return d) Yield to call Explanation:The present value of cash flows from an investment is calculated by discounting each cash flow at the Yield to Maturity (YTM). YTM represents the internal rate of return (IRR) of the bond or investment and reflects the total return if held until maturity, accounting for all future cash flows and their time value.4 / 104.The PMS shall disclose the audit observations of the preceding ______ to its clients. a) 5 years b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 1 year Explanation:Portfolio Management Services (PMS) are required to disclose audit observations of the preceding 3 years to their clients. This ensures transparency and provides clients with important information regarding the compliance and financial practices of the PMS.5 / 105.What is the YTM of a 10% Coupon Bond of face value of Rs 1000 and which is currently being sold at Rs. 1000 and which has a balance maturity period of 3 years? a) 10% b) 10.3% c) 10.15% d) 10.15% Explanation:The face value of the bond is Rs 1000 and its being sold at Rs. 1000. So the bond is being sold at par. Since the bond is sold at par, the YTM of the bond is equal to the coupon value of the bond. If the bond would’ve traded at premium/discount, the YTM would’ve been lesser/more than the coupon rate. So the YTM will be 10%6 / 106._________ is one of the statutory cost to the investor while engaging PMS. a) Registrars fees b) Auditors fees c) Brokerage charges d) Notary charges Explanation:Statutory Charges means any charge imposed by state or federal government legislation. Notary fees are payable to the notary public at a local court / Sub-registrar office to get a deed / documents notarised.7 / 107.Mr. Mehta’s initial contribution is Rs. 2 crores which then rises to Rs. 2 crores 30 lakhs in the first year. Therefore, a performance fee will be payable on Rs. 30 lakhs. Is this statement True or False? a) True b) False Explanation:High Water Mark is the highest value that the portfolio/account has reached. The portfolio manager charges performance based fee only on increase in portfolio value in excess of the previously achieved high water mark.8 / 108. A PMS firm has suddenly found that there is a shortage of working capital funds. From the options given below, which will be most acceptable? a) The PMS firm should borrow for short term from a commercial bank by pledging the securities of the client b) The PMS firm should use the common pool of client’s funds in a scheduled commercial bank c) The PMS firm should charge the client under PMS fees and reduce the distributions to be made to the client d) The PMS firm should borrow from a commercial bank for short term Explanation:As per the SEBI Do’s and Don’ts for a portfolio manager: The portfolio manager shall not borrow funds or securities on behalf of the client. It cannot pledge the client’s securities, etc.So, the best option to meet any shortfall of funds for its working capital requirements is to borrow from a commercial bank using its sources.9 / 109. An offer to subscribe to securities, made to less than ______ persons, is called private placement of securities. a) 100 b) 150 c) 200 d) 250 Explanation:An offer to subscribe to securities made to less than 200 persons is called a private placement of securities. This is a method of raising capital without making a public offer.10 / 1010. Mr. Pawan own a house worth Rs 1 crore and has financial assets worth Rs. 40 Lakhs. He also has an outstanding home loan of Rs 20 Lakhs and an outstanding car loan of Rs 3 Lakhs. Calculate the estimated Net Worth of Mr. Pawan. a) Rs. 1.17 crore b) Rs. 1.20 crore c) Rs. 1.40 crore d) Rs. 1.63 crore Explanation:For calculating net worth, all the assets the investor owns, i.e. the house, the car, the investments in stocks, bonds & mutual fund, balance in the saving accounts, value of the jewels owned and the value of all other financial assets and real assets are to be recorded at the estimated market value.Then all the liabilities need to be subtracted from the assets. Liabilities may include the outstanding car loan amount, credit card loans, home loan and any other amount he owes like the personal loan, education loan etc.,. The difference between the value of assets and liability is net worth.In the above question the assets are 1 crore (House) and Rs. 40 Lakhs (Other financialAssets) = Rs 1.40 croreLiabilities are : Outstanding home loan (Rs 20 lakhs) and car loan (Rs 3 lakhs) = Rs 23 lakh Networth = 1.40 crore Less Rs 23 Lakhs = Rs 1.17 croreYour score is 0% Restart quiz Exit